Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 16:28
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
It seems that I am cursed with bad luck. How do I break such a curse?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If a cat is feminine in German, what article do you give to a male cat?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Has any man licked his wife's vagina while another man had sex with her?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.